Beyond direct fraud detection, what is another significant security benefit Indian banks derive from accelerating AI/ML adoption?
A Reducing operational costs in physical branch maintenance.
B Enhancing cybersecurity by predicting and mitigating potential cyber threats.
C Automating customer service chatbots for general inquiries.
D Streamlining internal HR processes.
Answer: B
AI/ML plays a crucial role in cybersecurity by analyzing network traffic, identifying malware, predicting potential attack vectors, and automating responses to cyber threats, thereby strengthening the overall security posture of banks.
32.
How does AI/ML adoption primarily contribute to strengthening compliance and regulatory adherence in Indian banks, particularly concerning security?
A By reducing the need for human auditors.
B By automating the generation of financial statements.
C By improving Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) processes through advanced data analysis.
D By predicting stock market fluctuations for investment purposes.
Answer: C
AI/ML algorithms can analyze vast amounts of data to identify suspicious patterns, flag high-risk transactions, and automate parts of the KYC verification, significantly enhancing AML and KYC compliance, which are critical for banking security.
33.
Which of the following is a primary application where Indian banks are significantly accelerating the adoption of AI/ML for enhanced security?
A Automating ATM cash replenishment schedules.
B Enhancing fraud detection and prevention systems.
C Managing employee leave requests.
D Optimizing branch layout and design.
Answer: B
AI/ML is extensively used in banking for real-time transaction monitoring, anomaly detection, and predictive analytics to identify and prevent fraudulent activities, making it a primary application for enhanced security.
34.
What measure has SEBI mandated for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) regarding unliquidated investments at the end of their tenure, effective from early 2025?
A AIFs must compulsorily extend their tenure until all investments are liquidated.
B AIFs must transfer unliquidated investments to a new 'Dissolution Period Scheme' or distribute them in-specie to investors.
C AIFs are required to write off all unliquidated investments immediately.
D AIFs can sell unliquidated investments to the fund manager at a discounted price.
Answer: B
Effective from February 2025, SEBI mandated that AIFs must either liquidate their investments within the fund's tenure or, for unliquidated investments, transfer them to a new 'Dissolution Period Scheme' or distribute them in-specie to investors, subject to certain conditions and investor consent. This addresses the issue of 'evergreening' of funds.
35.
SEBI has introduced stricter norms regarding AIFs' investments in associate companies or group entities. What is the primary reason behind these restrictions?
A To encourage AIFs to invest more in foreign markets.
B To prevent potential conflicts of interest and self-dealing.
C To ensure AIFs maintain a diversified portfolio across all sectors.
D To reduce the overall risk exposure of AIFs to a single industry.
Answer: B
SEBI's restrictions on AIFs investing in associate companies or group entities are primarily aimed at preventing conflicts of interest, self-dealing, and potential siphoning of funds, thereby protecting investor interests.
36.
Which recent SEBI proposal for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) aims to enhance transparency and investor protection by ensuring that proceeds from the sale of investments are directly credited to investors?
A Mandating quarterly valuation reports for all AIFs.
B Requiring AIFs to invest a minimum percentage in government securities.
C Direct payout of proceeds to investors, bypassing the manager's pool account.
D Increasing the minimum investment threshold for Category III AIFs.
Answer: C
SEBI has proposed and implemented norms requiring AIFs to directly pay out proceeds from the sale of investments to investors, rather than routing them through the manager's bank account, to enhance transparency and reduce potential misuse. This was a significant change in 2023-2024.
37.
As per the RBI's guidelines on Fair Lending Practice – Penal Charges in Loan Accounts, what is the primary objective regarding penal interest/charges?
A To allow REs to levy higher penal interest rates to maximize revenue.
B To ensure that penal charges are reasonable and not used as a revenue enhancement tool.
C To permit LSPs to decide the penal interest rates independently.
D To mandate a uniform penal interest rate across all loan products.
Answer: B
The RBI's guidelines on penal charges, effective from January 1, 2024, emphasize that penal charges should be reasonable and proportionate to the non-compliance, and not be used as a revenue enhancement tool. They should be levied as 'penal charges' and not 'penal interest'.
38.
Under the RBI's digital lending guidelines, who is primarily responsible for the activities undertaken by Lending Service Providers (LSPs) on behalf of a Regulated Entity (RE)?
A The Lending Service Provider (LSP) itself.
B The borrower, for choosing the LSP.
C The Regulated Entity (RE).
D A third-party auditor appointed by the RBI.
Answer: C
The RBI guidelines clearly state that LSPs are agents of REs, and REs are fully responsible for the activities of LSPs engaged by them.
39.
What is a key mandate by the RBI regarding the flow of funds in digital lending, effective from 2022 and reinforced subsequently?
A All loan disbursements and repayments must be executed only between the borrower's bank account and the Regulated Entity's (RE) bank account.
B Lending Service Providers (LSPs) are permitted to use their pool accounts for temporary fund transfers.
C Borrowers can choose to repay loans directly to the LSP's designated account.
D REs can disburse loans through any third-party payment gateway without direct involvement.
Answer: A
The RBI guidelines explicitly state that all loan disbursements and repayments must be executed only between the borrower's bank account and the RE's bank account, without any pass-through/pool account of the LSP or any third party. This ensures transparency and accountability.
40.
A sustained improvement in the Asset Quality Review (AQR) metrics for Public Sector Banks (PSBs) leading up to FY27 would primarily indicate:
A A rise in fresh slippages to NPAs.
B Effective resolution of stressed assets and better underwriting standards.
C Increased reliance on off-balance sheet financing.
D A decrease in capital adequacy ratio.
Answer: B
Improvement in AQR metrics signifies that banks have been successful in resolving their stressed assets, reducing the stock of non-performing assets, and implementing better lending practices (underwriting standards) to prevent future asset quality deterioration.
